Thursday, December 5, 2013

Question 42

42.  Your patient is a 23 year old female with pregnancy induced hypertension that is 22 weeks pregnant.  She is on labetolol 200 mg BID.  She is in your office for a routine visit and she feels fine.  Her urine is negative for protein and otherwise normal.  Her CBC and CMP are normal.  Her vitals are as follows:  BP 168/102, HR-49, Temp-98.6, RR-16.  She has no edema.  Which of the following is the best management option.

A.  Increase dose of labetolol
B.  Recommend delivery
C.  Start Hydralazine
D.  Start lisinopril

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